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Bible question

Is the silence of 1 Corinthians 14:34 absolute?

Topic(s): Bible Authority, Bible Study, Worship

Todd Clippard

The demand for silence in 1 Corinthians 14:34 is not absolute. It must be understood contextually. The Greek word translated silence in verse 34 appears three times in the chapter (vv 28, 30, and 34), and nowhere indicates absolute silence. Rather, the word must be understood in its immediate context.

In verse 28, one who is speaking in a different language is to keep silence if there is no interpreter. The silence regulates his public speaking in a tongue, but not from speaking in a tongue understood by all present.

In verse 30, if one prophet is speaking and another sitting nearby receives a word of prophecy, the first is to keep silence (hold his peace) while the second speaks.

And in verse 34, the woman is to keep silence in such a way so as not to go beyond her authority. This is consistent with Paul's inspired restriction placed upon women exercising authority over men in 1 Timothy 2:8-15 (cf vv 11-12).

If a woman asks a question or makes a comment in a Bible class, she exercises no authority over man, neither violates the principles found in 1 Corinthians 14 and 1 Timothy 2.

Wayne Jackson has some excellent material on this subject at www.ChristianCourier.com. Type "1 Corinthians 14:34" in the search window and look at the index of articles on that site.