Topic(s):  Bible Authority, Church

Todd Clippard

I am not sure what you are reading. I suppose you were reading a “what we believe” type statement from a local congregation's web page.

The church of Christ has no statement of faith. We have no earthly headquarters, convention, or creed book. Since each congregation is autonomous, I cannot speak for all members everywhere. However, I can speak on behalf of what I know of most members based upon 30 years of association and membership within the body. Most of us accept the Bible as Divinely inspired, and thus without error of any kind. Though we believe in the inspiration of the Old Testament (John 5:39; 2 Timothy 3:16-17), we hold the New Testament is God's law for all men today (Colossians 3:17).

Of course the Bible must be interpreted. John began the book of Revelation by saying it was given to him by signs or symbols (Revelation 1:1). Obviously, what was given to him would need to be interpreted by those to whom it was given. Paul told the Ephesians, “when ye read, ye may understand” (Ephesians 3:4). Reading and understanding requires interpretation. Jesus rebuked the Sadducees in Matthew 22:22-30 by saying, “You do err, not knowing the scriptures nor the power of God.” Jesus rebuked the Pharisees when He said, “have ye not read?” (Matthew 12:1-8; 19:4ff). In essence, He pointed out their faulty interpretation of the Scriptures.

In the Bible there are instances recorded where men needed an explanation of the Scriptures. In Nehemiah 8:1-6, the Bible records Ezra the scribe as standing before the people and reading the Scriptures aloud for several hours. In verse 7, several men and the Levites are said to have “caused the people to understand the law.” Verse 8 says “So they read in the book of the law of God distinctly, and gave the sense, and caused them to understand the reading.”

In the New Testament, Philip asked the Ethiopian, “Do you understand what you are reading?” To which the man replied, “How can I, except some man should guide me?” So Philip took the Old Testament text (Isaiah 53) and preached Jesus to the man.

I would guess the passage which prompted the original question is 2 Peter 1:20, which says the scripture is not of any "private interpretation." There is a vast difference between no interpretation and no private interpretation. The point is this - God gave the Bible for all men for all time. The words of the Bible have specific meanings which God intends for us to understand. Jesus said we can know the truth (John 8:32). This knowledge comes from continuing in His word (John 8:31).

The Catholic church holds it hierarchy as the only people capable of interpreting the scriptures. This is the type of interpretation condemned by 2 Peter 1:20. Many other individuals and religious bodies claim to have special insight into the Scriptures, generally through some claim of Divine illumination or direct private Divine revelation. When a person goes on TV or radio and says, “the Lord told me what this means” or “the Lord told me to say this,” they are lying.

In connection with private interpretation, let me add to this by saying there is no such thing as two people understanding the Bible differently. If I believe one must be baptized in water to obtain remission of sins, and someone else denies it, both of us cannot be right. One of us misunderstands the Bible. If I say miracles have ceased, and someone else says men can still perform miracles today, one of us is wrong. It is not that we have a different understanding of the Scripture, one of us misunderstands the Scripture. In either case, and in all other cases of disagreement, the Scriptures must be examined to determine what is right. When we know what is right, then we will know who is right