Topic(s): Jesus, Moral Issues

Todd Clippard

[Note: I believe this question comes from one who read our answer to the question regarding the social use of alcohol. JTC]

I think you misunderstand our position in reference to drinking alcohol. We would never teach or even imply that our Lord committed sin. Such would be blasphemous and contradict a host of scriptures (1 Peter 1:21-22; 2 Corinthians 5:21; Hebrews 4:14-16; etc).

We believe the use of beverage alcohol for social purposes is a sin. However, we would also strongly argue that the wine used at the wedding feast in John 2, and any wine used at the Passover, was of a non-alcoholic nature. The first century people were well-schooled in the ways of preserving grape juice without allowing fermentation.

Also, the Greek word oinos is used to refer to both alcoholic and non-alcoholic beverages. Here are some uses of oinos indicating the presence of alcoholic beverages:
 
"Then he (Noah) drank of the wine (oinos) and was drunk" (Genesis 9:21). Genesis 9:24 says Noah "awoke from his wine," indicating he had "sobered up."

Genesis 19:32-35 says Lot’s daughters "made their drink wine" (oinos). He became drunk and was unaware of the sin they committed with him.

In the New Testament, Revelation 17:2 speaks of those who "were made drunk with the wine (oinos) . . ."

Here are some passages using oinos which cannot refer to intoxicating beverage:

Isaiah 16:10 says "no treaders will tread out wine (oinos) in the presses, and Joel 2:24 says "the vats shall overflow with new wine (oinos) and oil."

In Matthew 9:17, Jesus said men do not "put new wine (oinos) into old
 wineskins . . ."

Therefore, it is not inconsistent to teach the sinlessness of Christ along with His use or drinking of "wine."