Topic(s): Denominationalism, Miracles

Todd Clippard

Those who claim to speak in tongues today are referring to ecstatic utterances made after a personal manifestation of the Holy Spirit. Ecstatic coming form the word "ecstasy" meaning being beside oneself, beyond reason/self control, given over to extreme and engrossing emotions. Utterances are simply vocalized expressions. Participants in such babbling believe the Holy Spirit has taken over their verbalization and caused them to speak some heavenly language or tongues of angels. They are very sincere in their beliefs, and usually refer to such an experience as being "better felt than told." Unfortunately, what the Bible teaches concerning the topic is of little concern to them, for they "know" what they "feel in their heart."

What does it really mean to speak in tongues? In its simplest form, speaking in tongues simply means to speak in an understood language. English is a tongue, as is Spanish, French, German, and a host of other languages one might mention. To speak in tongues, in the biblical sense, is to speak a language one has never studied or learned. Let's look at the first incidence of this kind of tongue speaking in the Bible.

Jesus prophesied concerning speaking in tongues in Mark 16:17, and Acts 2:1-11 is the first reference to men actually speaking in tongues, thus fulfilling that prophecy of Jesus Christ.

Note the connection between the words "tongues" and "language" as seen in this text.

Acts 2:4 "they began to speak with other tongues"

Acts 2:6 "every man heard them speak in his own language"

Acts 2:8 "how hear we every man in our own tongue?" "language"- ASV, NASB, NKJV

Acts 2:11 "we do hear them speak in our tongues"

We see from this text that tongues are languages. Questions or objections to this observation include the following:

1) "There were only 12 apostles, and there are no less than 15 nations/regions listed in verses 9-11. How could they speak each language?"

2) "The men of Judea were speaking in tongues that are like those spoken among the Pentecostal groups today. It was understood by the hearers in their own language."

We may answer question/objection #1 in the following manner:

That there are more regions listed than apostles in Acts 2 does not necessarily mean that every man did not hear his own tongue/language spoken. For instance, if there were people present at a meeting representing the following nations: the United States, Canada, Mexico, Great Britain, France, and Spain, how many languages would need to be spoken to cover all six nations? Three- English, French, and Spanish. Notice that some of the nations/regions listed in Acts 2 are close to one another. It was probably the case that some of these nations/regions had the same native tongue as do nations/regions today.

A response to question/objection #2 may be made as follows:

One must look at the text and see to whom the promise of the Holy Spirit was given.

John 14-16, Mark 16, and Acts 1 indicate the promise was given to the apostles (and later to them who believed their teaching). It was not given to anyone else. If the gift of miraculous understanding was given to the hearers of Acts 2, then why bother to cause the apostles to speak in ecstatic utterances? It would be unnecessary (and illogical) to give the gift to both.

We see from the text of Acts 2:1-11 that it was the Holy Spirit who enabled the apostles to speak in tongues. Now let's look at how this was accomplished. This event is commonly known as the baptism of the Holy Spirit. It was prophesied of in Ezekiel 11 and also in Zechariah 12-13. It was also prophesied about in Joel 2:28-32. Peter quoted this passage in Acts 2:17-21.

In Acts 1:5-8, Jesus told his apostles that they would be "baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days hence", and that the power that would follow would enable them to do what?

There are two other specific incidents of tongue speaking which are important to this course of study. They occur in Acts 10:44-48 and Acts 19:1-7.

In Acts 10, we have recorded the first gospel sermon being preached to the Gentiles, specifically: Cornelius, his household, kinsmen, and near friends- vv. 24-27.

1) How did Peter describe the Holy Spirit baptism upon the Gentiles in Acts 10:47 & 11:17?

2) What things happened when the Holy Spirit came upon the apostles in Acts 2:1-6?

3) What do you find happening in Acts 2:11 that also occurred in Acts 10:46?

Today, the so-called baptism of the Holy Spirit and the accompanying speaking in tongues are given as symbols or "proof" of one's salvation. Read Acts 2:1-11 and 10:44-48 again.

1) Was the baptism of the Holy Spirit given as a sign of the apostles' salvation?

2) Was the baptism of the Holy Spirit given as a sign of the Gentiles' salvation?

3) Are these two events consistent with what Joel prophesied regarding the pouring out of God's Spirit "upon all flesh" (that is, upon both Jew and Gentile)?

We can know that all baptisms of the Holy Spirit were completed even before the final writings of the New Testament was accomplished.

1) What does the apostle Paul say to the Ephesians in regard to the number of valid baptisms in Ephesians 4:5?

2) Was water baptism valid at the time of Paul's writing (Eph. 5:25-26)?

3) If water baptism was valid at that time, and Paul stated that there was only one valid baptism, what may we logically conclude about the baptism of the Holy Spirit?

In Acts 19:1-7, we see where the gift of the Holy Spirit is given just as promised in Mark 16:15-20.

1) How was the Holy Spirit given in this passage?

2) Is this consistent with what we read in Acts 8:14-19?

In Ephesians 4:8-16, Paul said that when Jesus ascended, he gave gifts unto men. This is exactly what Jesus said he would do (John 14:11-14,26; John 16:13; Mark 16:15-20; Acts 1:5-8).

1) How long were these gifts to last (Eph. 4:13)?

2) What did Paul say about spiritual gifts and their duration in I Corinthians 13:8-11 which coincides with Ephesians 4?

3) Did spiritual gifts signal the end of God's revelation to man?

4) What is it that guides us in all aspects of daily living and religion (II Tim. 3:15-17, II Peter 1:3)?

5) What is the basis of religious unity today (John 17:17-23)?

6) Knowing these things, what is "that which is perfect" of I Corinthians 13:10 which would come and eliminate the need for spiritual gifts?

Paul said in I Corinthians 13:11 that those who continued to need the spiritual gifts were in a state of immaturity. In his second letter to the Corinthians he told them "For we walk by faith and not by sight." The completed New Testament eliminated the need for the spiritual gifts. Such gifts which were duplicated by Satan to deceive and draw men away from the faith (Matthew. 24:3-5,11,24; Eph. 4:14; II Tim. 3:13).

1) What did the people of Samaria think of Simon the sorcerer in Acts 8:9-11, before Philip came preaching the gospel and confirming it by the miracles?

2) Are men capable of similar magic and sorcery today?

In I Corinthians 14, Paul gives instruction and correction regarding the use of spiritual gifts.

1) In verse 4, who did Paul say was edified by speaking in tongues?

2) Who was edified by prophecy?

3) In verse 5, what condition did Paul place on speaking in tongues in order for the church to benefit?

4) In verses 22-23, for whom did Paul say the gift of tongues were given?

In whose presence does most "tongue-speaking take place today?

5) What did Paul say an unbelieving person would think if he came to the worship assembly and everyone was speaking in tongues?

6) Are the tongues we see and hear today like those of the Bible?