Topic(s): Bible Authority, Bible Study, Denominationalism, Women

Todd Clippard

The text under consideration begins in 1 Timothy 2:8: "I desire therefore that the men pray everywhere, lifting up holy hands, without wrath and doubting" NKJV. This is the first of several verses delineating the varying roles of men and women in the local body. This particular discussion ends at the conclusion of 1 Timothy 3.

The word "men" in verse 8 is gender specific, coming from the Greek aner or andras (Strong's #435). Thayer's Lexicon identifies the word as being "with a reference to sex, and so to distinguish a man from a woman" (p 45). It also has bearing on the maturity of the male, and is used in Matthew 15:38 to distinguish a man from a woman (gunaikos - Strong's 1135) or a child (paidion - Strong's 3813).

In verse 9, Paul begins with, "in like manner also," a reference back to the holy hands i.e., pure lives and motives, of verse 8, "that the women adorn themselves in modest apparel . . . which is proper for women professing godliness, with good works." So Paul makes a clear distinction between men and women.

Now to verses 11-12 -- "Let a woman learn in silence with all submission. And I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man, but to be in silence." The phrase "usurp authority" in the KJV implies something different than the text actually teaches. The silence in 1 Timothy 2:11-12 is to be carried out "with all subjection." Subjection comes from a Greek compound meaning "under appointment" (Strong's 5293). It is by the appointment of God that women are to learn in silence in the assembly, neither are they at liberty to exercise authority over men in the assembly.

To the Corinthians, Paul wrote, "Let your women keep silent in the churches, for they are not permitted to speak; but they are to be submissive, as the law also says" (1 Cor 14:34). Though this is a different word for silence than is found in 1 Timothy 2:11, they are nonetheless the same though their relationship to Divine appointment. In 1 Corinthians, a woman's silence is said to be with submissiveness in connection with the Divine instruction of the Law, but which law? There is no specific Mosaic injunction for women to keep silence. In 1 Timothy 2:11, her silence is connection with the Divine order of creation and the fall of man (vv 13-14). Thus, one should understand the silence commanded in the law is a reference back to Genesis 2-3, and 3:16 in particular.

A quick look at silence in 1 Corinthians 14:28, 30, and 34. The demand for silence in 1 Corinthians 14:34 is not absolute. It must be understood contextually. The Greek word translated silence in verse 34 appears three times in the chapter (vv 28, 30, and 34), and nowhere indicates absolute silence. Rather, the word must be understood in its immediate context.

In verse 28, one who is speaking in a different language is to keep silence if there is no interpreter. The silence regulates his public speaking in a tongue, but not from speaking in a tongue understood by all present. In verse 30, if one prophet is speaking and another sitting nearby receives a word of prophecy, the first is to keep silence (hold his peace) while the second speaks. And in verse 34, the woman is to keep silence in such a way so as not to go beyond her authority. This is consistent with Paul's inspired restriction placed upon women exercising authority over men in 1 Timothy 2:8-15 (cf vv 11-12).

In answer to your question, I do not believe there is authority for a Christian woman to pray in the presence of a Christian man.

I believe there is at least one situation where a Christian man could sit in on a class taught by a woman, and that is when an elder sits in on a class to make sure what is taught is biblical, and making sure the class is conducted in good order. He is not present to be taught, but to execute his responsibility as a shepherd of the flock.